JOEL - The Hebrew of Mal. 4:2 uses "shemesh" meaning "sun," and not "ben" which is
the word for "son". The Hebrew text says and should be translated as "the sun of righteousness
shall arise with healing in her(not his) wings," the feminine pronoun agreeing with the
feminine gender of "shemesh". Therefore the correct Hebrew to English translation
should be "Sun of righteousness".
But whether it's "the Sun of righteousness" or "the Son of righteousness",
Bible scholars agree that the scripture is speaking about Jesus Christ, so either
word could be correctly used.
As Joseph Smith was speaking the words of the book to his scribe, Oliver Cowdery, upon hearing
the word "sun", which "son/sun" do you think Oliver would have most likely written down,
knowing that the passage was talking about Jesus Christ(the Son of God)? It was a simple
transcribing mistake which had no effect on the meaning of the scripture, so it was left as "Son".
It is also possible that the person who set the type for printing book read the handwritten word as "son"
instead of "sun".
Whatever the case, I don't see why God would nitpik over a few incorrectly translated words if they did not change
the meaning of the verse. Joseph Smith decided to use the correct word(Sun) in his Inspired
version of the Bible.
You said:
"But none of those excuses can apply to Joseph Smith, who, although he was called
the "translator," was merely supposed to be acting as God's secretary. Accounts of
the "translation" process, which produced the Book of Mormon, describe how the divine
power would not let him proceed past a phrase until God considered it right."
This is your opinion based on accounts of the translation process that cannot be
historically confirmed or denied. We don't know exactly how it was done. At a Church
conference in 1831, Hyrum Smith invited the Prophet to explain more fully how the Book
of Mormon came forth. Joseph Smith responded that "it was not intended to tell the world
all the particulars of the coming forth of the Book of Mormon; and…it was not expedient
for him to relate these things" (History of the Church 1:220).
So any descriptions of the exact process may have only been opinions of those involved.
Joseph Smith once said:
"I told them that a prophet was a prophet only when he was acting as such." (History of the Church,
volume 5, page 265.). So there may have been moments where Joseph lacked the required degree of spiritual
readiness to act as a prophet and translate everything perfectly. But even though some discrepancies and
errors do exist, we have faith that God was careful to be sure that they were not serious enough to
result in the missunderstanding of esential gospel concepts and doctrine.
You said:
"Surely, if God is at work here, the translations will be accurate and reliable. Man's
frailty or inabilities cannot be a frustration to the work of an omnipotent God,
one would think."
If this is true and assuming you believe in the Bible, how do you explain the following:
God frees the Israelites from bondage and gives to them His new laws(ten Commandments),
expecting them to live those laws and thrive as His chosen people. But they rebel and
fall into sin, forcing God to make them wander in the wilderness until the
unrighteous generation has all died out.
This is a classic case where man's frailty frustrated God's work, if only temporarily.
It doesn't mean that God is not omnipotent. It means that God allows man his agency to
do what is right or wrong. He doesn't force anyone to be perfect or to do something perfectly,
including Joseph Smith. But He also doesn't allow man's frailties to completely hinder His overall
plan of salvation for us.
The small mistakes contained within the Book of Mormon do not really frustrate God's main plan.
They only provide weak ammunition for our critics and opportunities for us to exercise our
faith against opposition.
Oh, and don't call me Shirley. Oh, there you see, now I'm getting words mixed up too :-)
Return to top